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Deconstructing DOMA

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In his recent decision in Gill v. Office of Personnel Management, federal judge Joseph L. Tauro held unconstitutional Section 3 of the Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA). In reaching this result, Judge Tauro, who was appointed by Richard Nixon, addressed a subtle but important issue of constitutional law.

The federal government provides many benefits to married couples. For example, the spouse of a federal employee is entitled to medical coverage, the spouse of an individual covered by Social Security is eligible for retirement and survivor benefits, and married couples who file joint tax returns usually pay considerably lower federal income taxes than individuals who file separately.

Before 1996, all federal programs providing marriage benefits left the definition of "marriage" entirely to the states. If a couple was legally married under state law, then they were "married" for purposes of federal law. This was so even though States often have quite different rules about marriage. Some states, for example, recognize common law marriage, most do not. Some states allow people to marry without parental consent at age of 15, others require them to be at least 18. Some states permit individuals to terminate a marriage without any finding of fault, others do not. In all these circumstances, federal law defers to the state's definition of marriage. Indeed, from the very founding of our nation, the definition of marriage has been understood to be a state -- rather than a federal -- responsibility.

In 1996, however, Congress suddenly jettisoned this deeply-rooted tradition and attempted to interpose a new federal definition of marriage.The precipitating event was a debate in Hawaii over the legal recognition of same-sex marriage. Vilifying gays as "immoral" and "depraved," and condemning same-sex marriage as "perverse" and as "an attack on God's principles," members of Congress pushed through Section 3 of DOMA, which for the first time in our nation's history adopted a federal definition of marriage, confining "marriage" for federal purposes to only those legally-recognized marriages that are "between one man and one woman."

What makes the Gill case so interesting is that it raises a question somewhat different from that posed by State laws that decline to recognize same-sex marriage. Because the states have primary authority over the institution of marriage, they can appropriately consider a broad range of factors in deciding who can marry, in what circumstances, and subject to what conditions. The federal government, on the other hand, has no such authority.

For example, a state can lawfully enact a law prohibiting any person under the age of 18 to marry, but for Congress to enact such a law would clearly intrude on the authority of the States. Similarly, whether or not a state can constitutionally prohibit same-sex marriage, Congress plainly has no authority to do so.

DOMA, however, does not go that far. It does not prohibit States from legalizing same-sex marriage. Rather, it refuses to defer to a State's definition of marriage, insofar as it embraces same-sex marriage, for the purpose of determining eligibility for federal benefits. DOMA therefore poses an interesting puzzle. The federal government is under no obligation to provide special benefits to married couples, but if it chooses to do so can it discriminate against some marriages and not others"? This question implicates the constitutional guarantee of "equal protection of the laws."

For example, the government need not provide any health benefits to its employees, but if it chooses to do so it cannot constitutionally deny those benefits to particular employees because they are black, or women, or Mormon, or of Irish ancestry. The greater power - not to provide benefits at all - does not necessarily include the lesser power - to provide benefits only to some employees, but not others. This is at the very heart of the constitutional guarantee of equality.

Of course, differential treatment of different people is not always unconstitutional. If it was, then legislation would be pretty much impossible. For example, although the government cannot deny health benefits to employees because they are black or Mormon, it presumably can deny such benefits to employees who work only part-time.

In giving meaning to the constitutional guarantee of equality, the Supreme Court has focued on three types of situations. First, a law may discriminate against a group that, like blacks and women, has historically been discriminated against on the basis of a more or less immutable characteristic. Second, a law may discriminate between individuals with respect to a fundamental interest, such as the right to vote or the right to procreate. In these first two situations, the Court generally applies a very demanding standard of justification in deciding whether the inequality is constitutional.

In Gill, the court might have invoked either or both of these arguments, for sexual orientation is arguably analogous to race and gender, and marriage is arguably a fundamental interest. Judge Tauro, however, found it unnecessary to address those questions.

Instead, he analyzed DOMA as if it fell into the third situation, which consists of laws that neither implicate a fundamental interest nor discriminate against a group that is analogous to blacks and women. In this third situation, the Supreme Court generally finds a law constitutional if it rationally furthers a legitimate government interest. This would be the case, for example, if the government denied health benefits to part-time employees.

In Gill, Judge Tauro held that DOMA's discrimination against legally-married same-sex couples failed to satisfy even this more deferential standard. In enacting Section 3, members of Congress argued that the denial of equal benefits to same-sex couples who are legally-married under state law encourages "responsible procreation," promotes "heterosexual marriage," and preserves "morality." But whatever one thinks of these interests when offered in defense of a State's decision not to recognize same-sex marriage, they carry much less weight when advanced by Congress to justify discrimination against couples who are already legally married. And this is especially true in a realm in which Congress traditionally has no business meddling in the first place.

Moreover, the Supreme Court has long recognized that the government can never lawfully treat one group of people worse than others because the majority deems that group "immoral," "depraved," unworthy, or sinful according to "God's principles." Such animus is not a constitutionally legitimate basis for government action. Yet this seems to be precisely what motivated Section 3 of DOMA.

Indeed, if we acknowledge, as we must, that Congress had never before second-guessed a state's definition of marriage, and that the interests said to justify Section 3 have traditionally been understood to be within the exclusive domain of the States, it is difficult not to wonder what was really going on in Congress when it enacted DOMA.

After all, if Congress was truly serious about its purported justifications for DOMA, then it would have re-defined "marriage" to exclude other "depraved" or "immoral" unions. For example, it might have held that convicted mass murderers, child molesters, rapists, and adulterers cannot "marry" for purposes of receiving marriage benefits under federal law. But Congress apparently saw no reason to second-guess the states in their decisions to allow such persons to marry. It was only on the issue of sexual orientation that Congress saw fit to intervene.

In such circumstances, it is hard not to conclude that Section 3 of DOMA was designed, not to promote a constitutionally legitimate federal interest, but to enforce a distinctive animus against homosexuals. And it was precisely for this reason that Judge Tauro, following two major Supreme Court precedents invalidating other laws that discriminated on the basis of sexual orientation, rightly declared this congressional travesty unconstitutional.

 
 
 
In his recent decision in Gill v. Office of Personnel Management, federal judge Joseph L. Tauro held unconstitutional Section 3 of the Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA). In reaching this result, Judge Ta...
In his recent decision in Gill v. Office of Personnel Management, federal judge Joseph L. Tauro held unconstitutional Section 3 of the Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA). In reaching this result, Judge Ta...
 
 
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
dawacu
Jesus loves you
10:49 AM on 07/22/2010
The federal government has often imposed its view of marriage on the States, DOMA is nothing new.

Loving v. Virgina in 1967 invalidated state laws that prohibited interracial marriages.

The Edmunds-Tucker Act outlawed polygamy. The law was specifically designed to force Mormons to accept a soley monogamous definition of marriage by prohibiting women in the Utah territory from voting and penalizing them if they refused to testify in polygamy trials.

Also, Utah and other western states were forced to write bans on polygamy in their state constitutions before the federal government would recognize their applications for statehood, effectively enforcing a federal definition of marriage as monogamous.

Now, I personally don't believe that the federal government defining marriage is a bad thing, but to deny that it ever happened before DOMA wrong.
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HUFFPOST PUNDIT
Hardyman1966
The antonym of liberal is INTOLERANT.
01:17 PM on 07/21/2010
I look forward to the day in the near future when this subject is finally done and over with.

I will never understand why anyone would waste 5 seconds of their life rallying against something that supposedly has NOTHING to do with them.

It suggests either too much unemployed Christian free time, or a REALLY big closet door, or a likely combination of both.
08:40 AM on 07/22/2010
So does that mean straight people who stump for gay marriage need to shut up and go away, too? Because it has nothing to do with them either.

If they get to stand up for their convictions, so does everyone else.
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Euterpe360
I'm just a little bi-partisan
10:05 AM on 07/21/2010
So very true. So now I'm wondering why no one is suing the feds over this. Wait, is it possibly because the people who care are too busy having a stitch and bitch here at HP?

I jest, but seriously :|
05:57 AM on 07/21/2010
The government has a legitimate interest in denying such benefits since prior to the idea of gay marriage ALL states basically had the same rules. It was only with the new idea of gay marriage that DOMA became necessary. The Federal government will be hard pressed to determine who gets the right to have benefits without DOMA. For example, a gay couple is married in MA, one partner moves to Texas for the government job. Texas has NO gay marriage, so which will apply? Will the MA marriage which is illegal in Texas apply in that state? If that is the case, then the Federal government is tramping on Texas' right to define marriage. So it would seem that it is OK to stamp on Texas' rights in TEXAS,but not OK to do so in MA when it comes to the Federal governments rules. THAT is absurd. Thus the Feds have a legitimate interest in keeping the definition of marriage uniform throughout the US as it applies to its employees.
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
elijah24
Ubuntu
09:27 AM on 07/21/2010
Thats why it should be a national issue. A marriage in MA should be a marriage in TX. The government should not be discriminating on the basis of sexual orientation or anything else. DOMA not only isn't necessary, it is unconstitutional. It is legislative bigotry. Nothing more.
09:15 PM on 07/21/2010
The US discriminated against polygamous marriages that were legal in some territories and by implication also denied it in states if they were so stupid as to allow polygamy. Since no state had polygamy, and all prospective states were MANDATED to have laws against such a thing, there is NO question that the Federal government could and had the right to discriminate and override off the wall "marriages".
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
talkstocoyotes
11:39 AM on 07/21/2010
"For example, a gay couple is married in MA, one partner moves to Texas for the government job. Texas has NO gay marriage, so which will apply? "

If Congress, in the 1990s, hadn't decided to give a nudge-and-wink pass to same-sex marriage, the marriage would have to be recognized. States that don't allow first cousins to marry, or have varying ags of consent, are subject to Constitutional standards of giving full faith and credit to a marriage contract; same-sex marriage doesn't apply because our Government caved in to demands to use religious standards for a civil contract.

"Constitution!? We don't need no stinkin' Constitution!" ({"Well, maybe the Second Amendment....")
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HUFFPOST PUNDIT
Jdaddy1951
12:55 AM on 07/21/2010
Joseph Tauro is an American hero. He had the guts to state the truth, that the Defense of Marriage Act was, and always has been a really vile piece of discrimination, designed not to "defend" an institution that did not need defending, but to create a subclass of citizens in a democracy devoted to principles of equality.
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
talkstocoyotes
11:42 AM on 07/21/2010
And since when has 'procreation' become a standard for marriage? Are opponents of marriage equality really looking to outlaw marriage between elderly couples, or people who just aren't interested in having children?
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HUFFPOST PUNDIT
Jdaddy1951
12:24 PM on 07/21/2010
LOL, your comment reminded me of something that happened when my elderly parents were alive back in the 1980s. Mother and Dad were asked to be witnesses for another older couple, both of whom were widowed and wanted to marry. The very young bachelor minister, just before the ceremony, felt the need to provide "marriage counseling" to the betrothed couple, and stumbled through it with my parents as witnesses. When he asked if they had considered how marriage would affect their finances, Mother piped up and said, "That's right! If this will affect your Social Security or pensions in any way, you shouldn't let this guy marry you! You two should just shack up!"
08:45 AM on 07/22/2010
Nobody's under the impression that you *HAVE* to have kids in order to get married, but there is an understanding that children are fundamental to heterosexual couples. The government would have a greatly diminished interest in marital status if it wasn't for that fact.

It's funny how people act like procreation is some arbitrary standard of marriage, when really, re-defining marriage just for this elusive idea of equality is fairly arbitrary, too. So are reasons stemming from love and romantic fulfillment.
12:26 AM on 07/21/2010
As a gay man, I cannot understand why so many people oppose a federal definition of marriage or DOMA. While DOMA likely had malicious (and religious) intent, it actually benefits in practice because it allows for individual states to experiment in the "federal laboratory" without the nationwide implications that would otherwise be present. Secondly, I think we can only gain by strengthening the federal definition of gay marriage to include same sex couples rather than working by a state-by-state basis through the courts (the right avenue) and popular referenda (this should not even be allowed to happen). DOMA doesn't sound great, and it isn't, but we can use it to our advantage as we push for federally recognized same sex unions.
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
miamorphos
12:33 PM on 07/21/2010
You have an interesting point. My personal view is that a broad majority of Americans support domestic partnership legislation for couples regardless of the gender of the partners. I think that we would do well to push for domestic partnership legislation everywhere, and let the "marriage" issue work itself out.

For me, I am intellectually able to understand the people who are opposed to same-sex marriage, even though I mistrust their homophobia and explicitly antigay tone. They have a legitimate point insofar as marriage is an institution in which one household is able to transfer a piece of property to another household: a man gives his daughter to another man as a consort and a reproductive chattel. However, as our views of male-female relations changed, the law has begun to see the piece of property as a human being -- as it should, women being abundantly human, I think we all agree now, outside of shariah law. So while marriage is viewed by most of us as a joining together of equals, it has its roots in a specifically gendered arrangement. Slowly, most of us are seeing past that, but hey, that's why I push for domestic partnership legislation everywhere, so that antigay people can't make arguments based upon "what marriage has always been."
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
Redlion62
Wondering why so many believe so much nonsense
10:13 PM on 07/20/2010
My question is why is government involved in marriage at all? Isn't marriage a religious right? I've never married or had any children and I never will. I don't need a religious ceremony to commit to my woman, spouse, partner etc. and I don't need a piece of government paper for that commitment either. I've never wanted to procreate. So why do I have to pay more in taxes than some miserable guy married to a woman whom he used to love but, despises now; with children who don't respect either parent or society? Why was government involved in marriage at all? If it's a question of who gets what in a break-up; why can't people work it out themselves? I have a legally binding will saying who gets what if I die; what more do people need? This is a social area that government should've never been involved with ever.
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LintLass
"When you can balance a tackhammer on your head...
11:55 PM on 07/20/2010
Civil marriage is a civil contract.
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
miamorphos
12:34 PM on 07/21/2010
You took the words right out of my mouth. That's also why I believe that all marriages should be civil marriages and the religious ritual should be entirely religious -- that is to say, not legally binding or required. Separation of church and state ought to apply here.
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
elijah24
Ubuntu
09:30 AM on 07/21/2010
If you really want to go to the original purpose of marriage, it was a property contract, and/or a treaty of alliance between clans. Neither of which is particularly religious in nature.
GlennInVenice
Venice; Where Art Meets Crime
08:48 PM on 07/20/2010
My sincerest thanks go out to federal judge Joseph L. Tauro and Geoffrey R. Stone for deconstructing DOMA and exposing the real intent of the law.

I loved the suggestion that by not recognizing homosexual marriage the nation or state "encourages responsible procreation". How so? Is it by forcing homosexuals into sham marriages? Is it by stopping homosexuals from practicing irresponsible procreating after they are recognized as a married couple?

Further, DOMA's intend was to promote "heterosexual marriage". How does it do this? By making it exclusive and thus much to be desired? Is there some dynamic pull toward homosexual marriage on the part of heterosexuals that must be fought by not recognizing it legally? Are the rights afforded to married couples considered so attractive that by making them available only to mixed sex couples they can entice the homosexual away from the one that they love in order to cash in? If so, is the marriage of a male homosexual to a female heterosexual or vice versa still considered a heterosexual marriage?

In fact, this term “heterosexual marriage” needs to be explored further. Does anybody actually check on the sexual orientation of both parties of each marriage to determine that they are indeed heterosexual or does the state look the other way when a homosexual just pretends and mimics them?

Finally DOMA "preserves morality"? Only if morality does not include a life free from bigotry, prejudice, homophobia, and hateful disdain for loving relationships.
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
DevonTexas
Eternal Optimism
04:54 PM on 07/20/2010
"...argued that the denial of equal benefits to same-sex couples who are legally-married under state law encourages "responsible procreation," promotes "heterosexual marriage," and preserves "morality."

Just like those antiquated laws that made interracial marriage illegal.
06:57 PM on 07/20/2010
There is a huge difference between laws banning gay marriage and anti-miscegenation laws. For most of history, in most places, marriage between people of different races has been both acceptable and commonplace. Anti-miscegenation laws have been an historical aberration, popping up from time to time here and there, and as such they clearly represented an arbitrary restriction of the definition of marriage on the part of those states which enacted them. Never, however, in the six thousand years of recorded human history, has a civilized people recognized homosexual unions as a marriage. To claim that not allowing gays to marry now is discrimination is ludicrous; it requires a fundamental redefinition of the word. Not only is it bad public policy, it's plain old bad English.
HUFFPOST PUNDIT
noaxe397
09:15 PM on 07/20/2010
"Never, however, in the six thousand years of recorded human history, has a civilized people recognized homosexual unions as a marriage"

Maybe that is because the reason for marriage was to create legitimate heirs to property, including that of the church. Only a woman can create the heir, and when she couldn't it was often "off with her head."

Some institution.

We don't have such a situation regarding title to property today today and the subject of the article was THIS country, and not "most places."
11:35 PM on 07/20/2010
I believe your wrong on all counts. If you look back at the arguments used against interracial marriage, you'll find many are the same as those used today against same-sex marriage, including religion and slippery slope to polygamy and bestiality.

Also, I know of no region that embraced interracial marriage in deep history, at least not at any time when marriages were officially recognized which took place around 1300 I believe. Lastly, same-sex marriages did crop up, rarely but at times in various tribal and eastern cultures.

And, same-sex relationships were honored in the ancient western civilizations. Roman Emperor Hadrian was much in love with a young man named Antinous, for whom he named the city of Antiopolis. A pair of male lovers are hailed as heroes who ended the age of tyrant rulers of ancient Greece and bringing about the democratic principles on which our own country is based.

At that time, marriage involved men buying women as tools for making babies. Since men could not be owned in this way, a same-sex marriage made no sense. As the social mores and meaning of marriage have changed over time to become a partnership of support, as well as families expanding to take on various forms, same-sex marriage makes sense now.
03:02 PM on 07/20/2010
What a concise and terrific article, thanks.

I especially liked the angle of the second-last paragraph. Even if you give in to the illogical idea that denying gay people marriage promotes "normalcy" and morality, this is no excuse to deny benefits to people who ARE already married.

This is what the "make all civil marriage called civil unions, and let churches call it 'marriage'" crowd don't get: some churches DO marry gay people! So even if you make marriage a 'sacred' word you still get married gay people.

The judge recognized in DOMA, what the judge will surely find in the Prop 8 Perry vs. Schwartzenegger trial: when it comes to logical, coherent arguments against equality, the "prtect-marriage" people have nothing. Not a single argument. Nada. Zip. Bupkis.
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
DevonTexas
Eternal Optimism
04:57 PM on 07/20/2010
agreed
HUFFPOST COMMUNITY MODERATOR
dancingstu
Christian, liberal lawyer
02:14 PM on 07/20/2010
I am sure this decision will be applauded by conservatives everywhere as a rightful blow against the federal government trying to interfere with states' rights and matters of church doctrine. We don't need big government telling us which two consenting adults can and can't get married in our churches, thank you very much. At last, a court decision that everyone can agree with!
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HUFFPOST BLOGGER
Geoffrey R. Stone
law professor university of chicago
01:46 PM on 07/20/2010
The Edmunds Act regulated conduct in the United States Territories (specifically, Utah). Unlike the States, the Terrorities are under the plenary jurisdiction of the federal government. The Edmunds Act therefore is not in any way inconsistent with the statement that the definition of marriage had always been understood to be a State rather than a federal responsibility. When dealing with the Territories, there is no State to which to defer.
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
dawacu
Jesus loves you
02:36 PM on 07/20/2010
While the Edmunds-Tucker Act and the Edmunds Act were meant to penalize Mormons in Utah Territory for practicing polygamy, it outlawed polygamy across the USA (not just the territory of Utah).
Also, when the Utah territory applied for statehood, the federal government forced them to write a ban on polygamy into their constition. Effectively this meant that any territory that did not agree with the federal definition of marriage couldn't even become a state. In other words, the federal government was defining marriage a certain way and enforcing that definition by denying statehood to territories that would have otherwise qualified for it. Other Western Territories were also forced to insert bans on polygamy in their state constitutions before being granted statehood. You can look it up on wikipedia under "Utah."
12:31 AM on 07/21/2010
Hmm, very interesting. But, we still govern certain territories today, Guam for example. Does the federal government have the power to define marriage in these places? What about D.C.? Just an interesting question.
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
dawacu
Jesus loves you
12:54 PM on 07/20/2010
Correction: The federal government outlawed polygamy in 1887 and the law is called the Edmunds-Tucker Act. You can read about it on wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edmunds%E2%80%93Tucker_Act
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
dawacu
Jesus loves you
01:02 PM on 07/20/2010
This is in response to the authors statement that "Indeed, from the very founding of our nation, the definition of marriage has been understood to be a State rather than a federal responsibility.

In 1996, however, Congress suddenly jettisoned this deeply-rooted tradition and attempted to interpose a new federal definition of marriage."
HUFFPOST SUPER USER
dawacu
Jesus loves you
12:51 PM on 07/20/2010
"Indeed, from the very founding of our nation, the definition of marriage has been understood to be a State rather than a federal responsibility."

This statement is not entirely true. The federal government outlawed polygamy in 1890 with the Edmonds Tucker Act (I think that's what it was called).
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HUFFPOST SUPER USER
AnotherTry
Tell me again why we can't be equal?
05:30 PM on 07/20/2010
But the reasons were legit.
06:53 PM on 07/20/2010
Since when is a back-door violation of church-state separation "legit"?